How Diffierent Strategies Are Used To Support Children Education Essay

How Diffierent Strategies Are Used To Support Children Education Essay The assignment will develop the work started for log B, looking at how diffierent strategies are used to support children with social, emotional behavioural difficulties, focusing on how rewards and sanctions can improve behaviour. Looking at how a school behavioural policy can help within the classroom and school to tackle and improve behaviour as well as using literature to critically analyse these suggestions. Concerns about the behaviours of young people are nothing new. Socrates is quoted as saying Children today are real tyrants, they no longer stand up when their elders come into the room where they are sitting, they contradict their parents, chat together in the presence of adults, eat gluttonously and tyrannise their teachers. What counts as good behaviour can be difficult to identify specifically. Our understanding of the causes and cures of disruptive behaviour over the last few years has grown immensely. Previously, explanations of poor behaviour tend to be based on individual pupils and their families while treatments consisted of drugs, counselling and psychological intervention. Research that is more recent has suggested that school curriculum, teaching approaches, sanction and reward systems and pupil involvement in determining rules, rewards and sanctions contribute to the ethos of high expectations and developing positive teacher pupil relationships where indiscipline is minimised. Sanction and reward systems, which will be the focus of this assignment, have their origins in behaviourist psychology. They are most likely to be effective if shaped by an overall philosophy and linked closely to the ethos of the school and in many schools pupils are involved in drawing up the school rules, and consulted about appropriate sanctions, as this is seen as the best way of ensuring that punishments are seen as fair. Government policy in England states that TES (2005). Rewards and sanction systems are essential for a creative teaching and learning environment. By praising and rewarding positive behaviour, it is believed that others will be encouraged to act similarly. The government believe that school behaviour policy should therefore not only specify what sanctions are available to staff, but also how positive behaviour will be reinforced through praise and rewards.   Surprisingly, theres been little research into the effects of sanctions and rewards on behaviour and achievement. One of the most extensive studies was conducted by researchers at the University of East Anglia in 2000. Their survey of Year 8, 9 and 10 pupils in the Norwich area found that the most effective sanction in the eyes of pupils was a letter or phone call home to parents, while the least effective was a verbal warning. Similarly, the use of gifts was seen as by far the most effective reward, with verbal praise at the bottom of the list (TES, 2005). Recent research (Allen, unpublished) suggests that the school curriculum and the use of teaching approaches through sanctions and reward systems can determine the pupils involvement within the rules, thus contributing to the ethos of high expectations and developing positive teacher and pupil relationships therefore creating the individuality of the pupils. The types of children and their related social, emotional and behavioural problems must be identified before a sanction and rewards scheme can improve behaviour as part of a behavioural management policy within a Pupil Referral Unit. The definition of emotional and behavioural difficulties in Britain (DES, 1989) refers to: Children who set up barriers between themselves and their learning environment through inappropriate, aggressive, bizarre or withdrawn behaviour and who have developed a range of strategies for dealing with day to day experiences that are inappropriate and impede normal personal and social development and make it difficult to learn. This statement suggests that the problem resides with the child and that it is the child who needs to be treated and cured. However this view is far too simplistic. Therefore there is a need to understand the child, looking at the root causes of aggressive or socially inappropriate behaviour, by looking at the different perspectives on behaviour this will help teachers to understand individual childrens behaviour, and give them strategies to use within the classroom. The use of these perspectives is especially useful in a Pru situation where there are a large proportion of challenging children. Many of these children have had negative experiences in their secondary school and view themselves as inadequate, ineffective, and useless troublemakers, consequently their self esteem is low. Using the following perspectives and observing and recording a childs different behaviours can give teachers in Pupil referral units strategies to overcome pupils displayed behaviours which they can use effectively within the classroom. Firstly, the Pschodynamic perspective looks at how early experiences from childhood, attachment issues and other conflicts can have an effect on current behaviour traits, understanding these issues can help a teacher develop a positive relationship with the child. The Cognitive perspective, once testing of the childs abilities has been carried out, means that the work can be presented at the appropriate level (Ayers et al, 1995). This will help the child achieve success and develop their selfconfidence and self-esteem when attempting new topics. The Ecosystemic perspective looks at systems that influence the child, such as home, school and peer environments. Looking at all relationships that can affect the childs behaviour, and developing strategies to use within the classroom. Strategies based on this approach, such as nuture groups are being used increasingly in primary schools. Although these are implemented mainly by teachers, they sometimes involve assistance from other providers such as peers, parents or psychologists. A Behaviourist perspective approach looks at how postive and negative reinforcements us ed consistantly in school and at home can have a postive affect on behaviour, improving self esteem. A Humanistic perspective to managing behaviour tries to maximise a pupils inherent motivation to learn by minimising factors that undermine or inhibit this process. Teachers will need to recognise how the pupils feel about themselves and their capabilities. Maslow (1998) clarifies how needs such as physical and safety needs have to be adequately met before self esteem even becomes an issue. Although brief, the above descriptions of the different perspectives can give teachers an insight into why a child behaves the way it does. Many of the strategies mentioned in Log B support children with SEBD within the classroom. The most important one mentioned is actually listening to the child to try to understand what they feel and developing relationships. Emotional and behaviour difficulties are about people who are so badly hurt and in so much pain that they are angry, it is our belief that they express their anger in a place that is safe: to that expression of anger in school could be seen as positive Mc Namara, Morton (1995). Teachers in a Pupil Referral Unit situation often need to learn to also deal with their own emotions, as many feel frustrated because they want to help children to change their behaviour so that the pupils themselves get better outcomes. The usual strategies of sanctions, reasoning, punishments and exclusions used in secondary school dont always work with children in a Pupil referral unit. Therefore, being able to recognise the different behavioural perspectives teachers are able to develop their own teaching strategies within the classroom for the individual child. Before a child enters the Pupil referral unit they attend an assessment centre which is located within the same building, this gives a chance for the teachers to determine what the individual pupil needs to help them fulfil their potential. A behaviour contract is usually completed between the school, parents or guardian and the child themselves. The main areas that are addressed within this contract are used to develop positive behaviours to support relationships between pupils and teachers, pupils and their school environment, peer relationships and home relationships. By developing a whole school approach to behavioural management issues the Pupil referral unit involves all staff, some agencies, and the pupils. Involving parents would seem to be the best way forward. Capstick (2005) suggests Establishing good relationships with parents seem an important element when attempting to work with a child as well as giving tanible rewards. Teacher and staff need to examine what outcomes they want to achieve with the pupils and adopt or change the reward system to meet their needs. The values, which underpin a school behaviour policy, are that all children and adults have the right to work in a safe, calm, supported and purposeful environment. All children have the right to come to school without fear of being bullied. All adults have a responsibility to support the behaviour policy and for it to be consistently applied by all members of staff for it to work effectively. The Pupil referral units behavioural policy aims are to ensure a fair and consistent approach to dealing with the behaviour of children during the school day. This is by providing a safe, caring and supportive environment which allows children to learn and teachers to teach. The policy hopes to promote positive behaviour as a model for all behaviours. Help independence by making pupils responsible for their own actions and provide a structure which moderates childrens behaviour while allowing them to develop as responsible citizens within society.To achieve these aims it is vital that a partnership between home and school is established. A lack of, or poor discipline tends to be the result of problems within the family unit or lack of social skills. In a Pupil referral unit this is achieved in the following ways. Communication between a childs key teacher and their parent or guardian is good and means that the parent will phone in regularly to keep staff up to date on any problems at home, staff will in return inform parents of good behavour, effort or work that the child has produced. This means that the child is rewarded by the parent or guardian. When surveyed most children rated this highly on encouraging them to behave well at the pupil referral unit. Smith and Laslett (1993) suggest To use rewards and sanctions effectively requires knowledge and judicious application of the principles of behaviour modification the single most important factor in learning behaviour is what happens immediately following that behaviour. Pleasant consequences are most likely to reinforce the behaviour and make it happen again. To develop a whole school policy on sanctions and rewards within the Pupil referral unit, discussions should take place within the school community on how to deal with different types of behaviours observed in different places around the school. Pupils are involved during PSHCE lessons in conducting surveys, and a school council could be established so that the children views on school issues can be heard. For when the pupils understand the simple rules within the classroom the atmosphere is usually pleasant and the teaching enjoyable. The main objective for a school behavioural policy is to ensure that there was is a shared u nderstanding by both pupils and teachers of proportionate and differentiated sanctions that can be used in different situations. The policy needs to be clear on how teachers can acquire assistance in a crisis situation and who to go to for help. It should also be discussed what the protcol would be with the local police and youth offending services, if a serious incident occurred. Sanctions should be discussed with pupils and school rules displayed in every classroom. Sanctions must be fair and must be used to deal with behaviour, as quickly as possible. Pupils must know that when a sanction is applied it will be used. Record keeping is vital in the pupil referral unit, especially recording any behavioural incidents which help teachers deal with repetative behaviour issues. The Pupil referral unit could also use restorative justice to address poor behaviour, where a child is held to account for their actions and encouraged to put right the harm they may have caused. In some schools and Pupil Referral units this method seems to be working and behaviour is seen to be improving. The school behaviour policy should not only specify what sanctions are available to staff but also how positive behaviour will be reinforced through praise and rewards. The Elton Report (1989) noted that a reward and sanction ratio of at least 5:1 is an indication of a school with an effe ctive rewards and sanctions system. It also recommended that all schools should have a wide range of both rewards and sanctions that are applied fairly and consistently. The types of rewards used in a Pupil referral unit to motivate children are, verbal praise, rewarding postive behaviours which encouarge the pupils to behave in lessons, showing examples of examplar work on walls, displaying work showing the different levels of academic achievement. Giving all children the chance to succeed and develop their confidence and using the lessons they enjoy improving their self esteem. Reward strategies also used are certificates, postcards, prizes within lessons for consistent behaviour, effort or quality work. Parents are should be routinely informed of all of the above and termly assemblies given with parents encouraged to attend as recognition of their childs achievement. Teachers and staff within the Pupil referral unit therefore have high expectations of the pupils and encourage standards in collective and self discipline, encouraging purposeful learning opportunities within the classroom in order to support the behavioural management policy. An example of this is where children can be given target cards each day with one behaviour target on, they take this to each lesson and teachers record their behaviour, adding initials in the centre of the bullseye on the card if they have met that target for that lesson, at the end of the day the points (Initials in the centre of the bullseye) are added up and recorded on to a visual record sheet so that the pupils can see their achievements. Dealing with the different types of disruptions that can occur in lessons at the Pupil referral unit can also be challenging for teachers. Disruptions can manifest themselves as low level such as persistently talking to peers, seeking too much attention, or failing to cooperate. Whilst these disruptions can often be put down to stresses or difficulties outside school, it is evident that some situations arise because of the learning environment within the Pupil referral unit itself and this must be tackled in order for a behavioural policy and rewards and sanctions system to work effectively. Children can be bored with the work set especially if the level is incorrect, and will kick off. Some teachers as Ashman and Conway (1993) suggest see the problems as lying with the child rather than the curriculum or the methods used to teach. Lessons in the Pupil referral unit therefore can be timetabled for half hour and hour slots at various times of the year or timetables can be disbanded meaning that children experience a variety of different teaching styles within the day. This can also have a positive effect on behaviour management within the unit for example in practical lessons teachers are used to movement and children often have more freedom to move around depending upon the activity, the teachers tend to be more relaxed in their methods and consequently so are the children. Whereas, in theoretical lessons some teachers tend to regard movement as threatening and can apply sanctions more vigorously, if a child is critised or put down for something they have done wrong in class, this can add to a lowering of their self esteem and increase behavioural problems. Rogers (1998) Suggests that all teachers should develop their own discipline plan so that they know what to do in advance when classroom behaviour is disrup trive, to develop goals of discipline in school such as; helping the child accept responsibility for their own behaviour, exercise self control, respect the rights of others, adopt the principles of fairness and honesty and face logical consequences of their behaviour. The behaviour policy in the Pupil referral unit should also cover strategies such as tactical ignoring of certain behaviours, using simple directons, postive reinforcement of rules, behaviour and work. Strategies such as giving the children simple choices about sanctions, giving time out for five minutes, using isolation for counselling to discuss problems, or using break and lunchtime detentions, or keeping children for ten minutes after school can also be used as a positive way to modify pupil behaviours. Deflecting and defusing situations are one of the units strengths, as mentioned in Log B. The most common deflecting strategy used to distract the child from their behaviour, is usually humour but not with added sarcasm; this usually works and seems to calm the children down very quickly, without letting them lose face. The child is then reminded about giving an apology to the appropriate teacher. A room could also be used to mentor children who have caused disruption within a les son so that they can discuss their actions with a member of staff. These are all positive steps in helping children to understand how their actions can affect themselves and others and to consider the feelings of others and attempt to perceive their point of view. By enabling a child to empathise with others behaviours can often be modified in a more positive way. In conclusion the most important aspect of improving behaviour in any school is to develop a postive relationship with the children you teach, this is especially important in a Pupil referral unit as the pupils find it more difficult to make positive relationships. However, when they find a teacher that is friendly, caring, consistently predicatable and reliable many pupils will react postively and consequently their behaviour improves. For children who the above approach doesnt work, time and effort including observations are needed to determine which behavioural perspectives to use to help that child progress. In the Pupil referral unit therefore, the most effective way to help a child who has experienced traumatic events would be to use counselling by other services, or having a teacher they like discussing aspects of their behaviour with them, but being consistent with all the strategies included within the whole school behavioural policy and the use of sanctions and rewards helps improve behaviour. Unfortunately, in recent years the incidents of emotional and behavioural issues among children in all schools (not just pupil referral units) has increased and the different sanctions and strategies mentioned previously have yet to be embedded and used effectively everywhere. This is due to government pressure and league tables. Teachers have had to move away from listening to pupils in class time in order to get children through examinations, and to reach targets. As many of the solutions to helping improve behavioural issues for children with SEBD are based on a within child view and the team around the child, these thing involve a commitment from the government of time and money to enable these areas to be accessed by both pupils and teachers in order to improve behaviour effectively. An acknowledgement therefore that time spent on developing relationships within schools is in fact key to effecting education, requires a shift in government attitude in terms of expectations and ta rgets. Only then will pupil behaviour ultimately improve across educational establishments.

Comparing Ruth Prawer Jhabvalas Heat and Dust and Forsters A Passage

Comparing Ruth Prawer Jhabvala's Heat and Dust and Forster's A Passage to India Literature throughout time has contained many similarities. These similarities become even more prevalent when authors share a similar style and inspirations. Two authors that have similar experiences are Ruth Prawer Jhabvala and E.M. Forster. Both these authors have written books that are in the modernism style. Jhabvala and Forster also were fascinated by India and choose the relationships between native Indians and English colonizers as one of their themes. These similarities helped produce books that have similar characters. The women, not native to India, in both Jhabvala' Heat and Dust and Forster's A Passage to India, share many of the same attributes.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  The most obvious similarities are those shared by Jhabvala's character Olivia and Forster's character Adela. Throughout the books, these two characters share many characteristics and experiences. The first experience they shared while in India is that both women are social with the native Indians. This was unacceptable to all Anglo-Indians. Olivia frequently visited the Nawab at his palace. She also entertained him and his companion, Harry at her home. For the majority of the book, Olivia's husband, Douglas is unaware of how frequently she visited the Nawab. If Douglas had been fully aware of Olivia's actions, he would have been enraged. Proper Englishwomen were not to associate with natives while unchaperoned. Adela, Forster's character, had a similar experience. She desired to see the 'real'; India. To allow her to do this, a native offered to take her to the Marabar Caves, a local landmark. Again, Englishwomen were not to associate with the natives. Her potenti al fiancà © and host, allowed her to go under the condition that his mother and an Englishman were also included in the group. Socializing with Indians is only one common experience Olivia and Adela had.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Another similar experience occurs near the end of both books. Both Olivia and Adela had relationships irreparably changed through the influence of India. If neither women was in India, their relationships probably would have remained intact. Olivia's marriage to Douglas was ruined because of her relationship with the Nawab. Olivia became very close with the Nawab. She eventually came to carry his child. Because Olivia did not believe the child ... ... this advice happened at the Bridge Party. Again, they told Adela that she was superior to the natives and should act accordingly. Despite all their attempts Adela did not adopt their opinions about the natives. She attempted to form her own. The Anglo-Indian women in both novels attempted to supply advice to the younger women.   Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Despite being written by different authors, the female characters in Jhabvala's Heat and Dust and Forster's A Passage to India are very similar. In spite of the similarities among characters the novels themselves are different. Not only do the novels have different themes, they were also written through different points of view. While A Passage to India is mainly written through the view of a narrator, the point of view in Heat and Dust changes from the narrator to a third person view developed through Olivia's letters. These are a few of the many differences between the novels that occur regardless of the fact that the novels have similar characters. Works Cited Forster, E.M. (1992). A Passage to India. New York: Everyman's Library, Alfred A. Knopf, Inc. Jhabvala, Ruth Prawer. (1975). Heat and Dust. New York: Harper & Row, Publishers.

Religion :: essays research papers

Genetic Engineering Genes, or chromosomes, are often referred to as "blueprints" which are passed down from generation to generation. From the study of these hereditary materials, scientists have ventured into the recent, and rather controversial, field of genetic engineering. It is described as the "artificial modification of the genetic code of a living organism", and involves the "manipulation and alteration of inborn characteristics" by humans. Like many other issues, genetic engineering has sparked a heated debate. Some people believe that it has the potential to become the new "miracle tool" of medicine. "Advances in the field of genetic engineering could mean progress on an unprecedented scale for all civilization" - Gail Dutton To others, this new technology borders on the realm of immorality, and is an omen of the danger to come. They are firmly convinced that this human intervention into nature is unethical, and will bring about the destruction of mankind. "†¦ the promise of genetic engineering as a tool of medicine is matched only by the threat it would pose to human society and civilization." - Ann E. Weiss Rapid advances in medical science have fuelled the question of bioethics. However, as science takes leaps and bounds towards its goals, ethics are often just learning how to crawl. In fact, it has even suffered major backslides in some cases. Genetic engineering "raises serious ethical questions about the right of human beings to alter life on the planet". Changing the basic physical traits of an organism can lead to an unprecedented threat to life on the planet". With such dire consequences, where do we draw the line? What View Does Science Have on Genetic Engineering? For the first time in history, evolution has taken a backseat to the meddling of humankind with their own genetic makeup. There is an "ongoing realization that humanity is capable of directly shaping its own and other species’ evolution". As we ease into the twenty-first century, we realize that genetic engineering is undoubtedly going to have a dramatic effect on our lives. It seems that "with genetic engineering, science has moved from exploring the natural world and its mechanisms to redesigning it." Now, we must ask ourselves this, will that influence be for better, or for worse? However, even the responses of science differ in this topic. Scientists remain divided in their opinions. Some have warned against the hazards of genetic engineering, while others have dismissed these perils as inconsequential. Two opposing viewpoints, which is right?

Tax Treatments for Individual Returns

Use the following format for your essay. It is based on the grading rubric structure. Identify the item in the appropriate rubric area and then present your reasoning in a paragraph for each tax decision you have made. Use as much space as necessary in each category. (The task instructions give a suggested total length of 2-5 pages.Recommended Tax Filing Status The recommended tax filing status for this family is Married Filing Jointly. The reason I would recommend this filing status is that there are three children that are qualifying children, but the college freshman is not under the age of 17 so that child does not qualify for the child tax credit. Spouse B’s mother does not qualify as a dependant because she does not meet the minimum requirement of having half of her support come from the family.The family would be able to take a higher amount of deductions and therefore pay less in taxes if they choose Married Filing Jointly. By filing jointly the couple is able to take advantages of such credits as the child tax credit, the Lifetime Learning Credit & the hope credit. They are also able to save more into retirement plans than they would have been filing separately.Taxable and Non-Taxable Income Spouse A’s income from his K-1 from Fan Company A is taxable income. Spouse A’s cash withdrawals are not taxable because they are accounted for on his K-1 as part of his income from the partnership. Spouse A’s income as a part time referee is taxable. Spouse B’s earnings as the controller for the electronics firm are taxable. Dividends from Company E stocks are taxable.The interest from the municipal bond is non-taxable. The losses that Spouse B suffered from day trading would be an offset against all other taxable income and would need to be reported on Form 8949 and Schedule D. The income from the rental properties would be taxable.The gain from selling their home is not taxable because it falls within the $250,000 limit for gai ns from selling a primary residence. The $200 per month that Spouse B receives for child support is not considered taxable income.Capital Gains and Losses The $44,000 profit from the sale of the rental house is a taxable gain because it was not the family’s main residence. The $5,000 stock trading loss that Spouse B incurred would be a capital loss. But only $3,000 of the loss will be able to be deducted in the current year, the other $2,000 will be a loss carryover. The rule for Capital Gains & Losses is that when a capital asset is sold, the difference between the amount you paid for the asset and the amount you sold it for is a capital gain or capital loss.A2c. Profit or Losses from Sale of Property The profit from selling the family’s main residence is not considered to be a taxable gain because the family lived there for more than 2 years within the past 5 years and because the gain on the sale was less than $500,000. The amount of the exclusion for the couple is $296,000.Partnership Income and Losses Spouse A’s $142,000 income from his K-1 is his partnership income. This is included in his taxable income. Spouse A’s cash withdrawals are not taxable because they are accounted for on his K-1 as part of his income from the partnership. Only Spouse A’s share of the net income of the partnership is considered to be his taxable income.Passive Activity Gains and Losses The family had a passive activity loss of $6,200 from their rental properties because the family does not materially participate in the business. Passive activity losses can only offset passive activity income, and passive activity tax credits can only be used against tax attributable to passive activity income on your tax return. The $44,000 profit from the sale of the rental house is a passive gain.Adjustments to Income (on the 1040 form this area is called Adjusted Gross Income) Spouse A’s $600 monthly alimony is a deductible expense because his ex-spo use has to pay income tax Spouse A’s deductible portion of his Self Employment tax on his $142,000 partnership income would be an adjustment because an individual is able to deduct the amount of taxes that an employer would normally pay. Moving expenses are not able to be used as an adjustment to income because the family did not lessen the commute by at least 50 miles.The passive loss from the rental properties are an adjustment to gross income. The money that Spouse A contributes to his Keogh retirement plan is not an adjustment to gross income because it is not one of the specified types of retirement plans that are able to be used as an adjustment.Deductions The Family should take the standard tax deduction because I do not believe that their itemized deductions will total more than the standard deduction. The donations to charity are tax deductible as long as the couple kept up with records and can itemize each deduction. This would be reported on schedule A. Spouse Bâ⠂¬â„¢s new wardrobe for her new job is not tax deductible because the clothes can be worn for other occasions than just work. The family will not be able to take their health care costs as a deduction because the medical costs did not equal 7.5% of their income.Tax credits A tax credit is an amount of money that is able to be subtracted from the actual amount of taxes that a taxpayer owes. This will reduce the amount of taxes that the family has to pay to the IRS. Spouse A will not get a credit for his Keogh Plan contributions because the family’s AGI will be too high. The family will get a child tax credit for each of the two children under 17. It may be possible for the family to get an Education credit for their College freshman and deduct some of the eligble expenses.American Opportunity Tax Credit to deduct up to $2,500 for expenses of their college freshman. The credit is phased out for incomes above $160,000.

Cisa

1. A benefit of open system architecture is that it: A. facilitates interoperability. B. facilitates the integration of proprietary components. C. will be a basis for volume discounts from equipment vendors. D. allows for the achievement of more economies of scale for equipment. ANSWER: A NOTE: Open systems are those for which suppliers provide components whose interfaces are defined by public standards, thus facilitating interoperability between systems made by different vendors. In contrast, closed system components are built to proprietary standards so that other suppliers' systems cannot or will not interface with existing systems. . An IS auditor discovers that developers have operator access to the command line of a production environment operating system. Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of undetected and unauthorized program changes to the production environment? A. Commands typed on the command line are logged B. Hash keys are calculated periodica lly for programs and matched against hash keys calculated for the most recent authorized versions of the programs C. Access to the operating system command line is granted through an access restriction tool with preapproved rights D.Software development tools and compilers have been removed from the production environment ANSWER: B NOTE: The matching of hash keys over time would allow detection of changes to files. Choice A is incorrect because having a log is not a control, reviewing the log is a control. Choice C is incorrect because the access was already granted—it does not matter how. Choice D is wrong because files can be copied to and from the production environment. 3. In the context of effective information security governance, the primary objective of value delivery is to: A. optimize security investments in support of business objectives.B. implement a standard set of security practices. C. institute a standards-based solution. D. implement a continuous improvement culture. ANSWER: A NOTE: In the context of effective information security governance, value delivery is implemented to ensure optimization of security investments in support of business objectives. The tools and techniques for implementing value delivery include implementation of a standard set of security practices, institutionalization and commoditization of standards-based solutions, and implementation of a continuous improvement culture considering security as a process, not an event. 4.During a review of a business continuity plan, an IS auditor noticed that the point at which a situation is declared to be a crisis has not been defined. The MAJOR risk associated with this is that: A. assessment of the situation may be delayed. B. execution of the disaster recovery plan could be impacted. C. notification of the teams might not occur. D. potential crisis recognition might be ineffective. ANSWER: B NOTE: Execution of the business continuity plan would be impacted if the organizat ion does not know when to declare a crisis. Choices A, C and D are steps that must be performed to know whether to declare a crisis.Problem and severity assessment would provide information necessary in declaring a disaster. Once a potential crisis is recognized, the teams responsible for crisis management need to be notified. Delaying this step until a disaster has been declared would negate the effect of having response teams. Potential crisis recognition is the first step in responding to a disaster. 5. When implementing an IT governance framework in an organization the MOST important objective is: A. IT alignment with the business. B. accountability. C. value realization with IT. D. enhancing the return on IT investments.ANSWER: A NOTE: The goals of IT governance are to improve IT performance, to deliver optimum business value and to ensure regulatory compliance. The key practice in support of these goals is the strategic alignment of IT with the business (choice A). To achieve alignment, all other choices need to be tied to business practices and strategies. 6. When reviewing an implementation of a VoIP system over a corporate WAN, an IS auditor should expect to find: A. an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link. B. traffic engineering. C. wired equivalent privacy (WEP) encryption of data.D. analog phone terminals. ANSWER: B NOTE: To ensure that quality of service requirements are achieved, the Voice-over IP (VoIP) service over the wide area network (WAN) should be protected from packet losses, latency or jitter. To reach this objective, the network performance can be managed using statistical techniques such as traffic engineering. The standard bandwidth of an integrated services digital network (ISDN) data link would not provide the quality of services required for corporate VoIP services. WEP is an encryption scheme related to wireless networking.The VoIP phones are usually connected to a corporate local area network (LAN) and are not ana log. 7. An IS auditor selects a server for a penetration test that will be carried out by a technical specialist. Which of the following is MOST important? A. The tools used to conduct the test B. Certifications held by the IS auditor C. Permission from the data owner of the server D. An intrusion detection system (IDS) is enabled ANSWER: C NOTE: The data owner should be informed of the risks associated with a penetration test, what types of tests are to be conducted and other relevant details.All other choices are not as important as the data owner's responsibility for the security of the data assets. 8. Which of the following is a risk of cross-training? A. Increases the dependence on one employee B. Does not assist in succession planning C. One employee may know all parts of a system D. Does not help in achieving a continuity of operations ANSWER: C NOTE: When cross-training, it would be prudent to first assess the risk of any person knowing all parts of a system and what exposur es this may cause. Cross-training has the advantage of decreasing dependence on one employee and, hence, can be part of succession planning.It also provides backup for personnel in the event of absence for any reason and thereby facilitates the continuity of operations. 9. The use of digital signatures: A. requires the use of a one-time password generator. B. provides encryption to a message. C. validates the source of a message. D. ensures message confidentiality. ANSWER: C NOTE: The use of a digital signature verifies the identity of the sender, but does not encrypt the whole message, and hence is not enough to ensure confidentiality. A one-time password generator is an option, but is not a requirement for using digital signatures. 0. A retail outlet has introduced radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to create unique serial numbers for all products. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern associated with this initiative? A. Issues of privacy B. Wavelength can be absor bed by the human body C. RFID tags may not be removable D. RFID eliminates line-of-sight reading ANSWER: A NOTE: The purchaser of an item will not necessarily be aware of the presence of the tag. If a tagged item is paid for by credit card, it would be possible to tie the unique ID of that item to the identity of the purchaser.Privacy violations are a significant concern because RFID can carry unique identifier numbers. If desired it would be possible for a firm to track individuals who purchase an item containing an RFID. Choices B and C are concerns of less importance. Choice D is not a concern. 11. A lower recovery time objective (RTO) results in: A. higher disaster tolerance. B. higher cost. C. wider interruption windows. D. more permissive data loss. ANSWER: B NOTE: A recovery time objective (RTO) is based on the acceptable downtime in case of a disruption of operations. The lower the RTO, the higher the cost of recovery strategies.The lower the disaster tolerance, the narrower the interruption windows, and the lesser the permissive data loss. 12. During the requirements definition phase of a software development project, the aspects of software testing that should be addressed are developing: A. test data covering critical applications. B. detailed test plans. C. quality assurance test specifications. D. user acceptance testing specifications. ANSWER: D NOTE: A key objective in any software development project is to ensure that the developed software will meet the business objectives and the requirements of the user.The users should be involved in the requirements definition phase of a development project and user acceptance test specification should be developed during this phase. The other choices are generally performed during the system testing phase. 13. The BEST filter rule for protecting a network from being used as an amplifier in a denial of service (DoS) attack is to deny all: A. outgoing traffic with IP source addresses external to the network . B. incoming traffic with discernible spoofed IP source addresses. C. incoming traffic with IP options set.D. incoming traffic to critical hosts. ANSWER: A NOTE: Outgoing traffic with an IP source address different than the IP range in the network is invalid. In most of the cases, it signals a DoS attack originated by an internal user or by a previously compromised internal machine; in both cases, applying this filter will stop the attack. 14. What is the BEST backup strategy for a large database with data supporting online sales? A. Weekly full backup with daily incremental backup B. Daily full backup C. Clustered servers D. Mirrored hard disks ANSWER: ANOTE: Weekly full backup and daily incremental backup is the best backup strategy; it ensures the ability to recover the database and yet reduces the daily backup time requirements. A full backup normally requires a couple of hours, and therefore it can be impractical to conduct a full backup every day. Clustered servers provide a redundant processing capability, but are not a backup. Mirrored hard disks will not help in case of disaster. 15. Which of the following is a feature of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in wireless networks? A. Session keys are dynamicB. Private symmetric keys are used C. Keys are static and shared D. Source addresses are not encrypted or authenticated ANSWER: A NOTE: WPA uses dynamic session keys, achieving stronger encryption than wireless encryption privacy (WEP), which operates with static keys (same key is used for everyone in the wireless network). All other choices are weaknesses of WEP. 16. The ultimate purpose of IT governance is to: A. encourage optimal use of IT. B. reduce IT costs. C. decentralize IT resources across the organization. D. centralize control of IT. ANSWER: ANOTE: IT governance is intended to specify the combination of decision rights and accountability that is best for the enterprise. It is different for every enterprise. Reducing IT costs may not be the best IT governance outcome for an enterprise. Decentralizing IT resources across the organization is not always desired, although it may be desired in a decentralized environment. Centralizing control of IT is not always desired. An example of where it might be desired is an enterprise desiring a single point of customer contact. 17. The MAIN purpose of a transaction audit trail is to:A. reduce the use of storage media. B. determine accountability and responsibility for processed transactions. C. help an IS auditor trace transactions. D. provide useful information for capacity planning. ANSWER: B NOTE: Enabling audit trails aids in establishing the accountability and responsibility for processed transactions by tracing them through the information system. Enabling audit trails increases the use of disk space. A transaction log file would be used to trace transactions, but would not aid in determining accountability and responsibility.The objective of capacity planning is the efficient an d effective use of IT resources and requires information such as CPU utilization, bandwidth, number of users, etc. 18. An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impacting the project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: A. tress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. B. accept the project manager's position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. ANSWER: A NOTE: The majority of project risks can typically be i dentified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks.A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management.With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project management practices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 19. A data center has a badge-entry system. Which of the following is MOST important to protect the computing assets in the center?A. Badge readers are installed in locations where tampering would be noticed B. The computer that controls the badge system is backed up frequently C. A process for promptly deactivating lost or stolen badges exists D. All badge entry attempts are logged ANSWER: C NOTE: Tampering with a badge reader cannot open the door, so this is irrelevant. Logging the entry attempts may be of limited value. The biggest risk is from unauthorized individuals who can enter the data center, whether they are employees or not. Thus, a process of deactivating lost or stolen badges is important.The configuration of the system does not change frequently, therefore frequent backup is not necessary. 20. Which of the following would impair the independence of a quality assurance tea m? A. Ensuring compliance with development methods B. Checking the testing assumptions C. Correcting coding errors during the testing process D. Checking the code to ensure proper documentation ANSWER: C NOTE: Correction of code should not be a responsibility of the quality assurance team as it would not ensure segregation of duties and would impair the team's independence. The other choices are valid quality assurance functions. 1. Which of the following is the BEST type of program for an organization to implement to aggregate, correlate and store different log and event files, and then produce weekly and monthly reports for IS auditors? A. A security information event management (SIEM) product B. An open-source correlation engine C. A log management tool D. An extract, transform, load (ETL) system ANSWER: C NOTE: A log management tool is a product designed to aggregate events from many log files (with distinct formats and from different sources), store them and typically correlate them offline to produce many reports (e. . , exception reports showing different statistics including anomalies and suspicious activities), and to answer time-based queries (e. g. , how many users have entered the system between 2 a. m. and 4 a. m. over the past three weeks? ). A SIEM product has some similar features. It correlates events from log files, but does it online and normally is not oriented to storing many weeks of historical information and producing audit reports. A correlation engine is part of a SIEM product. It is oriented to making an online correlation of events.An extract, transform, load (ETL) is part of a business intelligence system, dedicated to extracting operational or production data, transforming that data and loading them to a central repository (data warehouse or data mart); an ETL does not correlate data or produce reports, and normally it does not have extractors to read log file formats. 22. To ensure authentication, confidentiality and integrity of a message, the sender should encrypt the hash of the message with the sender's: A. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. B. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key.C. public key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's public key. D. private key and then encrypt the message with the receiver's private key. ANSWER: B NOTE: Obtaining the hash of the message ensures integrity; signing the hash of the message with the sender's private key ensures the authenticity of the origin, and encrypting the resulting message with the receiver's public key ensures confidentiality. The other choices are incorrect. 23. An IS auditor observes a weakness in the tape management system at a data center in that some parameters are set to bypass or ignore tape header records.Which of the following is the MOST effective compensating control for this weakness? A. Staging and job set up B. Supervisory review of logs C. Regular back-up of tapes D. Offsite storage of tapes ANSWER: A NOTE: If the IS auditor finds that there are effective staging and job set up processes, this can be accepted as a compensating control. Choice B is a detective control while choices C and D are corrective controls, none of which would serve as good compensating controls. 24. What is the MOST prevalent security risk when an organization implements remote virtual private network (VPN) access to its network?A. Malicious code could be spread across the network B. VPN logon could be spoofed C. Traffic could be sniffed and decrypted D. VPN gateway could be compromised ANSWER: A NOTE: VPN is a mature technology; VPN devices are hard to break. However, when remote access is enabled, malicious code in a remote client could spread to the organization's network. Though choices B, C and D are security risks, VPN technology largely mitigates these risks. 25. The activation of an enterprise's business continuity plan should be based on predetermine d criteria that address the: A. duration of the outage. B. ype of outage. C. probability of the outage. D. cause of the outage. ANSWER: A NOTE: The initiation of a business continuity plan (action) should primarily be based on the maximum period for which a business function can be disrupted before the disruption threatens the achievement of organizational objectives. 26. After observing suspicious activities in a server, a manager requests a forensic analysis. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the investigator? A. Server is a member of a workgroup and not part of the server domain B. Guest account is enabled on the server C.Recently, 100 users were created in the server D. Audit logs are not enabled for the server ANSWER: D NOTE: Audit logs can provide evidence which is required to proceed with an investigation and should not be disabled. For business needs, a server can be a member of a workgroup and, therefore, not a concern. Having a guest account enab led on a system is a poor security practice but not a forensic investigation concern. Recently creating 100 users in the server may have been required to meet business needs and should not be a concern. 27. Minimum password length and password complexity verification are examples of: A. etection controls. B. control objectives. C. audit objectives. D. control procedures. ANSWER: D NOTE: Control procedures are practices established by management to achieve specific control objectives. Password controls are preventive controls, not detective controls. Control objectives are declarations of expected results from implementing controls and audit objectives are the specific goals of an audit. 28. Which of the following is an advantage of the top-down approach to software testing? A. Interface errors are identified early B. Testing can be started before all programs are complete C.It is more effective than other testing approaches D. Errors in critical modules are detected sooner ANSWER: A NOTE: The advantage of the top-down approach is that tests of major functions are conducted early, thus enabling the detection of interface errors sooner. The most effective testing approach is dependent on the environment being tested. Choices B and D are advantages of the bottom-up approach to system testing. 29. After initial investigation, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that fraud may be present. The IS auditor should: A. expand activities to determine whether an investigation is warranted.B. report the matter to the audit committee. C. report the possibility of fraud to top management and ask how they would like to proceed. D. consult with external legal counsel to determine the course of action to be taken. ANSWER: A NOTE: An IS auditor's responsibilities for detecting fraud include evaluating fraud indicators and deciding whether any additional action is necessary or whether an investigation should be recommended. The IS auditor should notify the appropriate authoritie s within the organization only if it has determined that the indicators of fraud are sufficient to recommend an investigation.Normally, the IS auditor does not have authority to consult with external legal counsel. 30. As a driver of IT governance, transparency of IT's cost, value and risks is primarily achieved through: A. performance measurement. B. strategic alignment. C. value delivery. D. resource management. ANSWER: A NOTE: Performance measurement includes setting and monitoring measurable objectives of what the IT processes need to deliver (process outcome) and how they deliver it (process capability and performance). Strategic alignment primarily focuses on ensuring linkage of business and IT plans.Value delivery is about executing the value proposition throughout the delivery cycle. Resource management is about the optimal investment in and proper management of critical IT resources. Transparency is primarily achieved through performance measurement as it provides informati on to the stakeholders on how well the enterprise is performing when compared to objectives. 31. A technical lead who was working on a major project has left the organization. The project manager reports suspicious system activities on one of the servers that is accessible to the whole team.What would be of GREATEST concern if discovered during a forensic investigation? A. Audit logs are not enabled for the system B. A logon ID for the technical lead still exists C. Spyware is installed on the system D. A Trojan is installed on the system ANSWER: A NOTE: Audit logs are critical to the investigation of the event; however, if not enabled, misuse of the logon ID of the technical lead and the guest account could not be established. The logon ID of the technical lead should have been deleted as soon as the employee left the organization but, without audit logs, misuse of the ID is difficult to prove.Spyware installed on the system is a concern but could have been installed by any user an d, again, without the presence of logs, discovering who installed the spyware is difficult. A Trojan installed on the system is a concern, but it can be done by any user as it is accessible to the whole group and, without the presence of logs, investigation would be difficult. 32. When using a universal storage bus (USB) flash drive to transport confidential corporate data to an offsite location, an effective control would be to: A. carry the flash drive in a portable safe. B. assure management that you will not lose the flash drive. C. equest that management deliver the flash drive by courier. D. encrypt the folder containing the data with a strong key. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption, with a strong key, is the most secure method for protecting the information on the flash drive. Carrying the flash drive in a portable safe does not guarantee the safety of the information in the event that the safe is stolen or lost. No matter what measures you take, the chance of losing the flash drive still exists. It is possible that a courier might lose the flash drive or that it might be stolen. 33. The FIRST step in a successful attack to a system would be: A. gathering information. B. aining access. C. denying services. D. evading detection. ANSWER: A NOTE: Successful attacks start by gathering information about the target system. This is done in advance so that the attacker gets to know the target systems and their vulnerabilities. All of the other choices are based on the information gathered. 34. An IS auditor finds that conference rooms have active network ports. Which of the following is MOST important to ensure? A. The corporate network is using an intrusion prevention system (IPS) B. This part of the network is isolated from the corporate network C. A single sign-on has been implemented in the corporate network D.Antivirus software is in place to protect the corporate network ANSWER: B NOTE: If the conference rooms have access to the corporate network, unauthorized us ers may be able to connect to the corporate network; therefore, both networks should be isolated either via a firewall or being physically separated. An IPS would detect possible attacks, but only after they have occurred. A single sign-on would ease authentication management. Antivirus software would reduce the impact of possible viruses; however, unauthorized users would still be able to access the corporate network, which is the biggest risk. 5. While observing a full simulation of the business continuity plan, an IS auditor notices that the notification systems within the organizational facilities could be severely impacted by infrastructural damage. The BEST recommendation the IS auditor can provide to the organization is to ensure: A. the salvage team is trained to use the notification system. B. the notification system provides for the recovery of the backup. C. redundancies are built into the notification system. D. the notification systems are stored in a vault. ANSWER: CNO TE: If the notification system has been severely impacted by the damage, redundancy would be the best control. The salvage team would not be able to use a severely damaged notification system, even if they are trained to use it. The recovery of the backups has no bearing on the notification system and storing the notification system in a vault would be of little value if the building is damaged. 36. The human resources (HR) department has developed a system to allow employees to enroll in benefits via a web site on the corporate Intranet. Which of the following would protect the confidentiality of the data?A. SSL encryption B. Two-factor authentication C. Encrypted session cookies D. IP address verification ANSWER: A NOTE: The main risk in this scenario is confidentiality, therefore the only option which would provide confidentiality is Secure Socket Layer (SSL) encryption. The remaining options deal with authentication issues. 37. Regarding a disaster recovery plan, the role of an IS auditor should include: A. identifying critical applications. B. determining the external service providers involved in a recovery test. C. observing the tests of the disaster recovery plan. D. etermining the criteria for establishing a recovery time objective (RTO). ANSWER: C NOTE: The IS auditor should be present when disaster recovery plans are tested, to ensure that the test meets the targets for restoration, and the recovery procedures are effective and efficient. As appropriate, the auditor should provide a report of the test results. All other choices are a responsibility of management. 38. Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that access authorizations are still valid? A. Information owner provides authorization for users to gain access B. Identity management is integrated with human resource processes C.Information owners periodically review the access controls D. An authorization matrix is used to establish validity of access ANSWER: B NOTE: Personnel a nd departmental changes can result in authorization creep and can impact the effectiveness of access controls. Many times when personnel leave an organization, or employees are promoted, transferred or demoted, their system access is not fully removed, which increases the risk of unauthorized access. The best practices for ensuring access authorization is still valid is to integrate identity management with human resources processes.When an employee transfers to a different function, access rights are adjusted at the same time. 39. The application systems of an organization using open-source software have no single recognized developer producing patches. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way of updating open-source software? A. Rewrite the patches and apply them B. Code review and application of available patches C. Develop in-house patches D. Identify and test suitable patches before applying them ANSWER: D NOTE: Suitable patches from the existing developers should be selected and tested before applying them.Rewriting the patches and applying them is not a correct answer because it would require skilled resources and time to rewrite the patches. Code review could be possible but tests need to be performed before applying the patches. Since the system was developed outside the organization, the IT department may not have the necessary skills and resources to develop patches. 40. Which of the following is a prevalent risk in the development of end-user computing (EUC) applications? A. Applications may not be subject to testing and IT general controls B. Increased development and maintenance costsC. Increased application development time D. Decision-making may be impaired due to diminished responsiveness to requests for information ANSWER: A NOTE: End-user developed applications may not be subjected to an independent outside review by systems analysts and frequently are not created in the context of a formal development methodology. These applicati ons may lack appropriate standards, controls, quality assurance procedures, and documentation. A risk of end-user applications is that management may rely on them as much as traditional applications.End-user computing (EUC) systems typically result in reduced application development and maintenance costs, and a reduced development cycle time. EUC systems normally increase flexibility and responsiveness to management's information requests. 41. The MAJOR consideration for an IS auditor reviewing an organization's IT project portfolio is the: A. IT budget. B. existing IT environment. C. business plan. D. investment plan. ANSWER: C NOTE: One of the most important reasons for which projects get funded is how well a project meets an organization's strategic objectives.Portfolio management takes a holistic view of a company's overall IT strategy. IT strategy should be aligned with the business strategy and, hence, reviewing the business plan should be the major consideration. Choices A, B and D are important but secondary to the importance of reviewing the business plan. 42. Which of the following is an attribute of the control self-assessment (CSA) approach? A. Broad stakeholder involvement B. Auditors are the primary control analysts C. Limited employee participation D. Policy driven ANSWER: ANOTE: The control self-assessment (CSA) approach emphasizes management of and accountability for developing and monitoring the controls of an organization's business processes. The attributes of CSA include empowered employees, continuous improvement, extensive employee participation and training, all of which are representations of broad stakeholder involvement. Choices B, C and D are attributes of a traditional audit approach. 43. The BEST method for assessing the effectiveness of a business continuity plan is to review the: A. plans and compare them to appropriate standards. B. results from previous tests.C. emergency procedures and employee training. D. offsite storage an d environmental controls. ANSWER: B NOTE: Previous test results will provide evidence of the effectiveness of the business continuity plan. Comparisons to standards will give some assurance that the plan addresses the critical aspects of a business continuity plan but will not reveal anything about its effectiveness. Reviewing emergency procedures, offsite storage and environmental controls would provide insight into some aspects of the plan but would fall short of providing assurance of the plan's overall effectiveness. 4. An organization has just completed their annual risk assessment. Regarding the business continuity plan, what should an IS auditor recommend as the next step for the organization? A. Review and evaluate the business continuity plan for adequacy B. Perform a full simulation of the business continuity plan C. Train and educate employees regarding the business continuity plan D. Notify critical contacts in the business continuity plan ANSWER: A NOTE: The business co ntinuity plan should be reviewed every time a risk assessment is completed for the organization.Training of the employees and a simulation should be performed after the business continuity plan has been deemed adequate for the organization. There is no reason to notify the business continuity plan contacts at this time. 45. Which of the following insurance types provide for a loss arising from fraudulent acts by employees? A. Business interruption B. Fidelity coverage C. Errors and omissions D. Extra expense ANSWER: B NOTE: Fidelity insurance covers the loss arising from dishonest or fraudulent acts by employees. Business interruption insurance covers the loss of profit due to the disruption in the operations of an organization.Errors and omissions insurance provides legal liability protection in the event that the professional practitioner commits an act that results in financial loss to a client. Extra expense insurance is designed to cover the extra costs of continuing operations following a disaster/disruption within an organization. 46. An IS auditor reviewing the risk assessment process of an organization should FIRST: A. identify the reasonable threats to the information assets. B. analyze the technical and organizational vulnerabilities. C. identify and rank the information assets. D. evaluate the effect of a potential security breach.ANSWER: C NOTE: Identification and ranking of information assets—e. g. , data criticality, locations of assets—will set the tone or scope of how to assess risk in relation to the organizational value of the asset. Second, the threats facing each of the organization's assets should be analyzed according to their value to the organization. Third, weaknesses should be identified so that controls can be evaluated to determine if they mitigate the weaknesses. Fourth, analyze how these weaknesses, in absence of given controls, would impact the organization information assets. 47.An organization is using an enterpr ise resource management (ERP) application. Which of the following would be an effective access control? A. User-level permissions B. Role-based C. Fine-grained D. Discretionary ANSWER: B NOTE: Role-based access controls the system access by defining roles for a group of users. Users are assigned to the various roles and the access is granted based on the user's role. User-level permissions for an ERP system would create a larger administrative overhead. Fine-grained access control is very difficult to implement and maintain in the context of a large nterprise. Discretionary access control may be configured or modified by the users or data owners, and therefore may create inconsistencies in the access control management. 48. The sender of a public key would be authenticated by a: A. certificate authority. B. digital signature. C. digital certificate. D. registration authority. ANSWER: C NOTE: A digital certificate is an electronic document that declares a public key holder is who the holder claims to be. The certificates do handle data authentication as they are used to determine who sent a particular message.A certificate authority issues the digital certificates, and distributes, generates and manages public keys. A digital signature is used to ensure integrity of the message being sent and solve the nonrepudiation issue of message origination. The registration authority would perform most of the administrative tasks of a certificate authority, i. e. , registration of the users of a digital signature plus authenticating the information that is put in the digital certificate. 49. Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of single factor personal identification? A. Smart card B. PasswordC. Photo identification D. Iris scan ANSWER: D NOTE: Since no two irises are alike, identification and verification can be done with confidence. There is no guarantee that a smart card is being used by the correct person since it can be shared, stolen or lost and found. Passwords can be shared and, if written down, carry the risk of discovery. Photo IDs can be forged or falsified. 50. A business application system accesses a corporate database using a single ID and password embedded in a program. Which of the following would provide efficient access control over the organization's data? A.Introduce a secondary authentication method such as card swipe B. Apply role-based permissions within the application system C. Have users input the ID and password for each database transaction D. Set an expiration period for the database password embedded in the program ANSWER: B NOTE: When a single ID and password are embedded in a program, the best compensating control would be a sound access control over the application layer and procedures to ensure access to data is granted based on a user's role. The issue is user permissions, not authentication, therefore adding a stronger authentication does not improve the situation.Having a user input the ID and passwo rd for access would provide a better control because a database log would identify the initiator of the activity. However, this may not be efficient because each transaction would require a separate authentication process. It is a good practice to set an expiration date for a password. However, this might not be practical for an ID automatically logged in from the program. Often, this type of password is set not to expire. 51. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when deciding areas of priority for IT governance implementation?A. Process maturity B. Performance indicators C. Business risk D. Assurance reports ANSWER: C NOTE: Priority should be given to those areas which represent a known risk to the enterprise's operations. The level of process maturity, process performance and audit reports will feed into the decision making process. Those areas that represent real risk to the business should be given priority. 52. An IS auditor has been asked to partic ipate in project initiation meetings for a critical project. The IS auditor's MAIN concern should be that the: A. omplexity and risks associated with the project have been analyzed. B. resources needed throughout the project have been determined. C. project deliverables have been identified. D. a contract for external parties involved in the project has been completed. ANSWER: A NOTE: Understanding complexity and risk, and actively managing these throughout a project are critical to a successful outcome. The other choices, while important during the course of the project, cannot be fully determined at the time the project is initiated, and are often contingent upon the risk and complexity of the project. 3. Which of the following would MOST effectively control the usage of universal storage bus (USB) storage devices? A. Policies that require instant dismissal if such devices are found B. Software for tracking and managing USB storage devices C. Administratively disabling the USB por t D. Searching personnel for USB storage devices at the facility's entrance ANSWER: B NOTE: Software for centralized tracking and monitoring would allow a USB usage policy to be applied to each user based on changing business requirements, and would provide for monitoring and reporting exceptions to management.A policy requiring dismissal may result in increased employee attrition and business requirements would not be properly addressed. Disabling ports would be complex to manage and might not allow for new business needs. Searching of personnel for USB storage devices at the entrance to a facility is not a practical solution since these devices are small and could be easily hidden. 54. When performing a database review, an IS auditor notices that some tables in the database are not normalized. The IS auditor should next: A. recommend that the database be normalized. B. review the conceptual data model.C. review the stored procedures. D. review the justification. ANSWER: D NOTE: If the database is not normalized, the IS auditor should review the justification since, in some situations, denormalization is recommended for performance reasons. The IS auditor should not recommend normalizing the database until further investigation takes place. Reviewing the conceptual data model or the stored procedures will not provide information about normalization. 55. Which of the following would be the GREATEST cause for concern when data are sent over the Internet using HTTPS protocol? A.Presence of spyware in one of the ends B. The use of a traffic sniffing tool C. The implementation of an RSA-compliant solution D. A symmetric cryptography is used for transmitting data ANSWER: A NOTE: Encryption using secure sockets layer/transport layer security (SSL/TLS) tunnels makes it difficult to intercept data in transit, but when spyware is running on an end user's computer, data are collected before encryption takes place. The other choices are related to encrypting the traffic, but the presence of spyware in one of the ends captures the data before encryption takes place. 56.At the completion of a system development project, a postproject review should include which of the following? A. Assessing risks that may lead to downtime after the production release B. Identifying lessons learned that may be applicable to future projects C. Verifying the controls in the delivered system are working D. Ensuring that test data are deleted ANSWER: B NOTE: A project team has something to learn from each and every project. As risk assessment is a key issue for project management, it is important for the organization to accumulate lessons learned and integrate them into future projects.An assessment of potential downtime should be made with the operations group and other specialists before implementing a system. Verifying that controls are working should be covered during the acceptance test phase and possibly, again, in the postimplementation review. Test data should be retained for future regression testing. 57. While reviewing the IT infrastructure, an IS auditor notices that storage resources are continuously being added. The IS auditor should: A. recommend the use of disk mirroring. B. review the adequacy of offsite storage. C. eview the capacity management process. D. recommend the use of a compression algorithm. ANSWER: C NOTE: Capacity management is the planning and monitoring of computer resources to ensure that available IT resources are used efficiently and effectively. Business criticality must be considered before recommending a disk mirroring solution and offsite storage is unrelated to the problem. Though data compression may save disk space, it could affect system performance. 58. Which of the following would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify when conducting a business continuity audit? A.Data backups are performed on a timely basis B. A recovery site is contracted for and available as needed C. Human safety procedures a re in place D. Insurance coverage is adequate and premiums are current ANSWER: C NOTE: The most important element in any business continuity process is the protection of human life. This takes precedence over all other aspects of the plan. 59. While reviewing sensitive electronic work papers, the IS auditor noticed that they were not encrypted. This could compromise the: A. audit trail of the versioning of the work papers. B. approval of the audit phases.C. access rights to the work papers. D. confidentiality of the work papers. ANSWER: D NOTE: Encryption provides confidentiality for the electronic work papers. Audit trails, audit phase approvals and access to the work papers do not, of themselves, affect the confidentiality but are part of the reason for requiring encryption. 60. An IS auditor reviewing an accounts payable system discovers that audit logs are not being reviewed. When this issue is raised with management the response is that additional controls are not necessary bec ause effective system access controls are in place.The BEST response the auditor can make is to: A. review the integrity of system access controls. B. accept management's statement that effective access controls are in place. C. stress the importance of having a system control framework in place. D. review the background checks of the accounts payable staff. ANSWER: C NOTE: Experience has demonstrated that reliance purely on preventative controls is dangerous. Preventative controls may not prove to be as strong as anticipated or their effectiveness can deteriorate over time.Evaluating the cost of controls versus the quantum of risk is a valid management concern. However, in a high-risk system a comprehensive control framework is needed. Intelligent design should permit additional detective and corrective controls to be established that don't have high ongoing costs, e. g. , automated interrogation of logs to highlight suspicious individual transactions or data patterns. Effective ac cess controls are, in themselves, a positive but, for reasons outlined above, may not sufficiently compensate for other control weaknesses. In this situation the IS auditor needs to be proactive.The IS auditor has a fundamental obligation to point out control weaknesses that give rise to unacceptable risks to the organization and work with management to have these corrected. Reviewing background checks on accounts payable staff does not provide evidence that fraud will not occur. 61. A firewall is being deployed at a new location. Which of the following is the MOST important factor in ensuring a successful deployment? A. Reviewing logs frequently B. Testing and validating the rules C. Training a local administrator at the new location D. Sharing firewall administrative dutiesANSWER: B NOTE: A mistake in the rule set can render a firewall insecure. Therefore, testing and validating the rules is the most important factor in ensuring a successful deployment. A regular review of log fil es would not start until the deployment has been completed. Training a local administrator may not be necessary if the firewalls are managed from a central location. Having multiple administrators is a good idea, but not the most important. 62. When evaluating the controls of an EDI application, an IS auditor should PRIMARILY be concerned with the risk of: A. xcessive transaction turnaround time. B. application interface failure. C. improper transaction authorization. D. nonvalidated batch totals. ANSWER: C NOTE: Foremost among the risks associated with electronic data interchange (EDI) is improper transaction authorization. Since the interaction with the parties is electronic, there is no inherent authentication. The other choices, although risks, are not as significant. 63. The PRIMARY objective of implementing corporate governance by an organization's management is to: A. provide strategic direction. B. control business operations.C. align IT with business. D. implement best prac tices. ANSWER: A NOTE: Corporate governance is a set of management practices to provide strategic direction, thereby ensuring that goals are achievable, risks are properly addressed and organizational resources are properly utilized. Hence, the primary objective of corporate governance is to provide strategic direction. Based on the strategic direction, business operations are directed and controlled. 64. To determine if unauthorized changes have been made to production code the BEST audit procedure is to: A. xamine the change control system records and trace them forward to object code files. B. review access control permissions operating within the production program libraries. C. examine object code to find instances of changes and trace them back to change control records. D. review change approved designations established within the change control system. ANSWER: C NOTE: The procedure of examining object code files to establish instances of code changes and tracing these back t o change control system records is a substantive test that directly addresses the risk of unauthorized code changes.The other choices are valid procedures to apply in a change control audit but they do not directly address the risk of unauthorized code changes. 65. When reviewing an active project, an IS auditor observed that, because of a reduction in anticipated benefits and increased costs, the business case was no longer valid. The IS auditor should recommend that the: A. project be discontinued. B. business case be updated and possible corrective actions be identified. C. project be returned to the project sponsor for reapproval. D. project be ompleted and the business case be updated later. ANSWER: B NOTE: An IS auditor should not recommend discontinuing or completing the project before reviewing an updated business case. The IS auditor should recommend that the business case be kept current throughout the project since it is a key input to decisions made throughout the life o f any project. 66. Which of the following audit techniques would BEST aid an auditor in determining whether there have been unauthorized program changes since the last authorized program update? A. Test data run B. Code review C.Automated code comparison D. Review of code migration procedures ANSWER: C NOTE: An automated code comparison is the process of comparing two versions of the same program to determine whether the two correspond. It is an efficient technique because it is an automated procedure. Test data runs permit the auditor to verify the processing of preselected transactions, but provide no evidence about unexercised portions of a program. Code review is the process of reading program source code listings to determine whether the code contains potential errors or inefficient statements.A code review can be used as a means of code comparison but it is inefficient. The review of code migration procedures would not detect program changes. 67. Doing which of the following d uring peak production hours could result in unexpected downtime? A. Performing data migration or tape backup B. Performing preventive maintenance on electrical systems C. Promoting applications from development to the staging environment D. Replacing a failed power supply in the core router of the data center ANSWER: B NOTE: Choices A and C are processing events which may impact performance, but ould not cause downtime. Enterprise-class routers have redundant hot-swappable power supplies, so replacing a failed power supply should not be an issue. Preventive maintenance activities should be scheduled for non-peak times of the day, and preferably during a maintenance window time period. A mishap or incident caused by a maintenance worker could result in unplanned downtime. 68. Which of the following is the MOST robust method for disposing of magnetic media that contains confidential information? A. Degaussing B. Defragmenting C. Erasing D. Destroying ANSWER: DNOTE: Destroying magnetic media is the only way to assure that confidential information cannot be recovered. Degaussing or demagnetizing is not sufficient to fully erase information from magnetic media. The purpose of defragmentation is to eliminate fragmentation in file systems and does not remove information. Erasing or deleting magnetic media does not remove the information; this method simply changes a file's indexing information. 69. The MAIN criterion for determining the severity level of a service disruption incident is: A. cost of recovery. B. negative public opinion. C. geographic location. D. downtime.ANSWER: D NOTE: The longer the period of time a client cannot be serviced, the greater the severity of the incident. The cost of recovery could be minimal yet the service downtime could have a major impact. Negative public opinion is a symptom of an incident. Geographic location does not determine the severity of the incident. 70. During the design of a business continuity plan, the business impact a nalysis (BIA) identifies critical processes and supporting applications. This will PRIMARILY influence the: A. responsibility for maintaining the business continuity plan. B. criteria for selecting a recovery site provider.C. recovery strategy. D. responsibilities of key personnel. ANSWER: C NOTE: The most appropriate strategy is selected based on the relative risk level and criticality identified in the business impact analysis (BIA. ), The other choices are made after the selection or design of the appropriate recovery strategy. 71. What is the lowest level of the IT governance maturity model where an IT balanced scorecard exists? A. Repeatable but Intuitive B. Defined C. Managed and Measurable D. Optimized ANSWER: B NOTE: Defined (level 3) is the lowest level at which an IT balanced scorecard is defined. 2. During the system testing phase of an application development project the IS auditor should review the: A. conceptual design specifications. B. vendor contract. C. error repor ts. D. program change requests. ANSWER: C NOTE: Testing is crucial in determining that user requirements have been validated. The IS auditor should be involved in this phase and review error reports for their precision in recognizing erroneous data and review the procedures for resolving errors. A conceptual design specification is a document prepared during the requirements definition phase. A vendor ontract is prepared during a software acquisition process. Program change requests would normally be reviewed as a part of the postimplementation phase. 73. When reviewing procedures for emergency changes to programs, the IS auditor should verify that the procedures: A. allow changes, which will be completed using after-the-fact follow-up. B. allow undocumented changes directly to the production library. C. do not allow any emergency changes. D. allow programmers permanent access to production programs. ANSWER: A NOTE: There may be situations where emergency fixes are required to resol ve system problems.This involves the use of special logon IDs that grant programmers temporary access to production programs during emergency situations. Emergency changes should be completed using after-the-fact follow-up procedures, which ensure that normal procedures are retroactively applied; otherwise, production may be impacted. Changes made in this fashion should be held in an emergency library from where they can be moved to the production library, following the normal change management process. Programmers should not directly alter the production library nor should they be allowed permanent access to production programs. 4. Though management has stated otherwise, an IS auditor has reasons to believe that the organization is using software that is not licensed. In this situation, the IS auditor should: A. include the statement of management in the audit report. B. identify whether such software is, indeed, being used by the organization. C. reconfirm with management the usag e of the software. D. discuss the issue with senior management since reporting this could have a negative impact on the organization. ANSWER: B NOTE: When there is an indication that an organization might be using nlicensed software, the IS auditor should obtain sufficient evidence before including it in the report. With respect to this matter, representations obtained from management cannot be independently verified. If the organization is using software that is not licensed, the auditor, to maintain objectivity and independence, must include this in the report. 75. Which of the following would be BEST prevented by a raised floor in the computer machine room? A. Damage of wires around computers and servers B. A power failure from static electricity C. Shocks from earthquakes D. Water flood damage ANSWER: ANOTE: The primary reason for having a raised floor is to enable power cables and data cables to be installed underneath the floor. This eliminates the safety and damage risks pose d when cables are placed in a spaghetti-like fashion on an open floor. Static electricity should be avoided in the machine room; therefore, measures such as specially manufactured carpet or shoes would be more appropriate for static prevention than a raised floor. Raised floors do not address shocks from earthquakes. To address earthquakes, anti-seismic architecture would be required to establish a quake-resistant structural framework.Computer equipment needs to be protected against water. However, a raised floor would not prevent damage to the machines in the event of overhead water pipe leakage. 76. The network of an organization has been the victim of several intruders' attacks. Which of the following measures would allow for the early detection of such incidents? A. Antivirus software B. Hardening the servers C. Screening routers D. Honeypots ANSWER: D NOTE: Honeypots can collect data on precursors of attacks. Since they serve no business function, honeypots are hosts that have no authorized users other than the honeypot administrators.All activity directed at them is considered suspicious. Attackers will scan and attack honeypots, giving administrators data on new trends and attack tools, particularly malicious code. However, honeypots are a supplement to, not a replacement for, properly securing networks, systems and applications. If honeypots are to be used by an organization, qualified incident handlers and intrusion detection analysts should manage them. The other choices do not provide indications of potential attacks. 77. The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily to: A. prevent piggybacking.B. prevent toxic gases from entering the data center. C. starve a fire of oxygen. D. prevent an excessively rapid entry to, or exit from, the facility. ANSWER: A NOTE: The purpose of a deadman door controlling access to a computer facility is primarily intended to prevent piggybacking. Choices B and C could be accomplish ed with a single self-closing door. Choice D is invalid, as a rapid exit may be necessary in some circumstances, e. g. , a fire. 78. The MOST important reason for an IS auditor to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. rovide a basis for drawing reasonable conclusions. C. ensure complete audit coverage. D. perform the audit according to the defined scope. ANSWER: B NOTE: The scope of an IS audit is defined by its objectives. This involves identifying control weaknesses relevant to the scope of the audit. Obtaining sufficient and appropriate evidence assists the auditor in not only identifying control weaknesses but also documenting and validating them. Complying with regulatory requirements, ensuring coverage and the execution of audit are all relevant to an audit but are not the reason why sufficient and relevant evidence is required. 9. During the audit of a database server, which of the following would be considered the GREATEST exposure? A. The password does not expire on the administrator account B. Default global security settings for the database remain unchanged C. Old data have not been purged D. Database activity is not fully logged ANSWER: B NOTE: Default security settings for the database could allow issues like blank user passwords or passwords that were the same as the username. Logging all database activity is not practical. Failure to purge old data may present a performance issue but is not an immediate security concern.Choice A is an exposure but not as serious as B. 80. An IS auditor finds that a DBA has read and write access to production data. The IS auditor should: A. accept the DBA access as a common practice. B. assess the controls relevant to the DBA function. C. recommend the immediate revocation of the DBA access to production data. D. review user access authorizations approved by the DBA. ANSWER: B NOTE: It is good practice when finding a potential exposure to look for the best controls. Though granting the database administrator (DBA) access to production data might be a common practice, the IS auditor should evaluate the relevant controls.The DBA should have access based on a need-to-know and need-to-do basis; therefore, revocation may remove the access required. The DBA, typically, may need to have access to some production data. Granting user authorizations is the responsibility of the data owner and not the DBA. 81. What should be the GREATEST concern to an IS auditor when employees use portable media (MP3 players, flash drives)? A. The copying of sensitive data on them B. The copying of songs and videos on them C. The cost of these devices multipl

The Illiad Play

Isaiah Hammed An Iliad Essay Response Honors British Literature Mr.. Jason Then 3/24/14 â€Å"War is Hell† Adventurers seeking for a live blood fest should be cautioned, however, that all this riotous violence is induced through the words of a sole actor, played by James Deviate, in An Iliad. James Deviate tells the story of the Trojan War as he is living and referring to all wars that were fought since. â€Å"Every time I sing this song, I hope it's the last time,† the Poet tells his audience. But it never is because wars keep happening all over the world.An Iliad evokes the message of futility of war, with war, everyone loses and in the end there is no resolution. The message the production of an Iliad is trying to make is that war is foolish as every war. Andrew Bobby's destructed setting portrays the lost and ruined lives in the story. The informal, chatty tone echoes Homer's use of simile, and makes parallels between modern life to the desires that irritated the Tr ojan and Greeks. Deviated gets his message across by his conventional, ballet movements which express the ritual of war.Including the standout scene where the Poet loses it, representing the mindless killing of warriors. The poet gives every person being killed a backstops. As he describes a spear being plunged down someone's throat, he'll say, â€Å"He was a married man with a 3-year-old-son†. Or â€Å"he was an incredible warrior from the fields of Argon, and he was a good potter, known to produce beautiful things. † The poet values each life until the end of it. He glorifies the bravery, loyalty, and strength of the soldiers by giving each a positive quality.The cone where Prima the King chastens himself by putting his life at risk to beg for hi son's dead body, thinking that they will kill him and surprisingly they don't. He begs and Achilles agrees to give it back. Achilles is king enough to say miss, I'll do this†, and is patient enough to warn Prima not to yell so he doesn't kill him. This extraordinary scene depicts the sentimental and courageous side of the manly warriors. The onstage attendance of cellist Alicia Storing promotes the audience's gratefulness of how this ancient story will always remain a story for everyone. Just having the sound f a cello at times will evoke the women who are talked about in the play,† Deviated said. â€Å"Seeing a woman out there alters the story. So often, women and children are the collateral damage in war. Alias's presence, while I describe things like Hectors son being thrown from the battlements, will change how that account resonates. † Snowline) The ghostly presence of the cellist dramatists the story.

An Analysis of Leadership Models

Models and their Influence on Educational Leadership Pamela Lee University of Phoenix An Analysis of Leadership Models Although there is no conclusive, comprehensive definition of leadership, there has been advances in researching leadership theories that have been uncovered and carried out over the last 200 years. In the late sass, the trait theory permeated the leadership theory. The World War era saw the beginning of the contingency/situation leadership theories of Fiddler, Broom-Yet, and Hershey-Blanchard. In the sass, the research turned toward behavioral leadership theories.Many researchers started to use rating skills and conduct interviews to identify the specific behaviors that leaders engaged in on-the-Job (Wren, 1995). The most recent leadership theories, transactional, and transformational, focus on the relationships between leaders and followers. According to Viola, Wallaby, and Weber, â€Å"Today, the field of leadership focus' not only on the leader, but also the foll owers, peers, supervisors, work setting/context, and culture† (Viola, Wallaby, & Weber, 2009, p. 422). Many of the leadership models have been used in education.The following will be a historical analysis of the trait, behavioral, transactional, and transformational models and their influence on educational leadership over the past 200 years. Close attention will be paid to the evolution of the educational leader (principal) and how his or her roles have changed over time. The scientific study of leadership began in the late sass with the discovery of the traits theory. The common assumption of the time was that certain people were born with the ability to lead, thus making them better leaders than others.Schemers stated, † Those who became leaders were different from those who remained lowers† (Schemers, 1995, p. 83). The goal of trait research was to identify traits that were associated with leadership. The tests measured dominance, masculinity, sensitivity, and physical appearance, to name a few (Schemers, p. 83). During this time, a key leadership role in education was beginning to develop, the principals. As a result of the expansion of education, the one room schoolhouse model with a teacher or master became obsolete.In the sass, grade level schools were established and certain teachers were elevated to the position of â€Å"principal teacher† (Kafka, p. 321). The principal teacher at this time also possessed certain traits. The principal was most always male, who could complete the following clerical and administrative duties that kept the school in order, such as assigning classes, conducting discipline, maintaining the building, taking attendance, and ensuring that school began and ended on time (Kafka, p. 231)t.According to Kafka, These duties brought the principal teacher a degree of authority, as did his role in communicating and answering to the district superintendent, who tended to govern local schools from afar† ( Kafka, 2009, p. 231). Many of these roles matched the traits earlier identified by the scientific studies. The principal was male and showed dominance through authority and could manage and maintain law and order in the school. The role of principal and the type of person who filled this position would not change until the scientific research revealed that traits alone do not determine who should be in leadership positions.In the late sass, Stodgily discovered that â€Å"traits alone do not determine leadership† (Schemers, 1995, p. 84). As a result of Stodgily discovery, new models of leadership were created and researched. One model, behaviorism, researched the behaviors (styles) that a leader would demonstrate in his or her chosen field. Questionnaires such as the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire was used to identify behaviors that leaders engaged in (Schemers, p. 85). In education, the principals role changed as the country went off to war and people feared the fa scist and communist dictatorships.As a result of the changes in the world and new education laws passed, specifically the law that made school compulsory, the principals role changed and evolved. The principals role became a more democratic role. According to Kafka, â€Å"there was a greater expectation that other members of the school community-? including faculty and even students-?would help make decisions and govern the school. In this sense, the principals authority was drawn somewhat from his role as a democratic leader† (Kafka, 2009, p. 325).Principals would have many roles, they would become instructional leaders, and use the professional training they received and the scientific theories they were presumed to have mastered to bring about the very best classroom teaching and learning (Beck & Murphy, 1993, p. 73-76). Principals ere instructed how to manage custodians and cafeteria duties. Principals were expected to demonstrate a democratic leadership style when runnin g his or her school. In the sass, leadership research shifted from situational and contingency models to the transactional and transformational approaches.The transactional approach made popular by the research of Edwin Hollander focused on the leader as the star of the show. The transactional model did not focus on behaviors or specific situation, but on improving an organization through incentives and rewards. One transactional theory, the vertical dyad linkage theory plopped by Green, described how leaders in groups maintain their position through a series of tacit exchange agreements with their members (Schemers, p. 91). The transformational approach in contrast, is based on the interaction of leaders and followers.Bass, Burns, and House became key leaders in the research annals of transformational leadership. According to Cutout, † Genuine transformational is â€Å"socialized† and transcends self-interest for utilitarian or moral reasons. It seeks a convergence of values distinguish genuine from pseudo forms of transformational leadership† (Cutout, 2002, p. 96). Although the transactional leadership approach can be found primarily throughout business organizations, it also can be found in education at the principal position along with the transformational approach.In the field of education, a principal can implement both transformational and transactional leadership approaches simultaneously. In the sass, principals became agents of change. Healthier stated, â€Å"that this focus on the principals capacity to enact change was only affirmed in the sass with the popularity of Ron Edmondson effective schools research, which emphasized that strong administrative leadership as a common characteristic of successful schools† (Healthier, 1992, p. 37). As a result of No Child Left Behind (NCSC), schools have implemented high stakes testing to satisfy the requirements of the law.Principals are put in the position of having to wear â€Å"t wo hats†, a transformational hat and a transactional hat. Pepper states, † A principals ability to skillfully balance transform and transactional leadership styles will best position a school to accomplish the goals set forth by NCSC while also continuing to focus on individual students needs for academic success† (Pepper, 2010, p. 3). A principal practices a transformational leadership style when he or she is practicing shared leadership with staff, parents, and students.A principal would collaborate with teachers in the areas of curriculum development and instructional practices. The principal also would have a shared vision for the school and collaborate with staff and students to build an effective school culture. The principal would practice transactional leadership when he or she are overseeing the daily operations of the school. The principal would be enforcing policies, procedures, and rules of the school. The principal would reward teachers for accomplishi ng their goals and discipline teachers who do not live up to his or her standards.Although most would think of a principal as a transformational leader, there are times when a principal also has to be a transactional leader to accomplish goals, increase student achievement, and have a safe and effective school for both staff and students. Research and psychological studies will continue to contribute to the pool of leadership theories illustrated in this essay. The study of leadership has evolved from a leader-centered models with the advent of trait and behavioral studies to a Ochs on a multidimensional study that revolves around culture, context, and emotions as seen with the transactional and transformational models. An Analysis of Leadership Models Models and their Influence on Educational Leadership Pamela Lee University of Phoenix An Analysis of Leadership Models Although there is no conclusive, comprehensive definition of leadership, there has been advances in researching leadership theories that have been uncovered and carried out over the last 200 years. In the late sass, the trait theory permeated the leadership theory. The World War era saw the beginning of the contingency/situation leadership theories of Fiddler, Broom-Yet, and Hershey-Blanchard. In the sass, the research turned toward behavioral leadership theories.Many researchers started to use rating skills and conduct interviews to identify the specific behaviors that leaders engaged in on-the-Job (Wren, 1995). The most recent leadership theories, transactional, and transformational, focus on the relationships between leaders and followers. According to Viola, Wallaby, and Weber, â€Å"Today, the field of leadership focus' not only on the leader, but also the foll owers, peers, supervisors, work setting/context, and culture† (Viola, Wallaby, & Weber, 2009, p. 422). Many of the leadership models have been used in education.The following will be a historical analysis of the trait, behavioral, transactional, and transformational models and their influence on educational leadership over the past 200 years. Close attention will be paid to the evolution of the educational leader (principal) and how his or her roles have changed over time. The scientific study of leadership began in the late sass with the discovery of the traits theory. The common assumption of the time was that certain people were born with the ability to lead, thus making them better leaders than others.Schemers stated, † Those who became leaders were different from those who remained lowers† (Schemers, 1995, p. 83). The goal of trait research was to identify traits that were associated with leadership. The tests measured dominance, masculinity, sensitivity, and physical appearance, to name a few (Schemers, p. 83). During this time, a key leadership role in education was beginning to develop, the principals. As a result of the expansion of education, the one room schoolhouse model with a teacher or master became obsolete.In the sass, grade level schools were established and certain teachers were elevated to the position of â€Å"principal teacher† (Kafka, p. 321). The principal teacher at this time also possessed certain traits. The principal was most always male, who could complete the following clerical and administrative duties that kept the school in order, such as assigning classes, conducting discipline, maintaining the building, taking attendance, and ensuring that school began and ended on time (Kafka, p. 231)t.According to Kafka, These duties brought the principal teacher a degree of authority, as did his role in communicating and answering to the district superintendent, who tended to govern local schools from afar† ( Kafka, 2009, p. 231). Many of these roles matched the traits earlier identified by the scientific studies. The principal was male and showed dominance through authority and could manage and maintain law and order in the school. The role of principal and the type of person who filled this position would not change until the scientific research revealed that traits alone do not determine who should be in leadership positions.In the late sass, Stodgily discovered that â€Å"traits alone do not determine leadership† (Schemers, 1995, p. 84). As a result of Stodgily discovery, new models of leadership were created and researched. One model, behaviorism, researched the behaviors (styles) that a leader would demonstrate in his or her chosen field. Questionnaires such as the Leader Behavior Description Questionnaire was used to identify behaviors that leaders engaged in (Schemers, p. 85). In education, the principals role changed as the country went off to war and people feared the fa scist and communist dictatorships.As a result of the changes in the world and new education laws passed, specifically the law that made school compulsory, the principals role changed and evolved. The principals role became a more democratic role. According to Kafka, â€Å"there was a greater expectation that other members of the school community-? including faculty and even students-?would help make decisions and govern the school. In this sense, the principals authority was drawn somewhat from his role as a democratic leader† (Kafka, 2009, p. 325).Principals would have many roles, they would become instructional leaders, and use the professional training they received and the scientific theories they were presumed to have mastered to bring about the very best classroom teaching and learning (Beck & Murphy, 1993, p. 73-76). Principals ere instructed how to manage custodians and cafeteria duties. Principals were expected to demonstrate a democratic leadership style when runnin g his or her school. In the sass, leadership research shifted from situational and contingency models to the transactional and transformational approaches.The transactional approach made popular by the research of Edwin Hollander focused on the leader as the star of the show. The transactional model did not focus on behaviors or specific situation, but on improving an organization through incentives and rewards. One transactional theory, the vertical dyad linkage theory plopped by Green, described how leaders in groups maintain their position through a series of tacit exchange agreements with their members (Schemers, p. 91). The transformational approach in contrast, is based on the interaction of leaders and followers.Bass, Burns, and House became key leaders in the research annals of transformational leadership. According to Cutout, † Genuine transformational is â€Å"socialized† and transcends self-interest for utilitarian or moral reasons. It seeks a convergence of values distinguish genuine from pseudo forms of transformational leadership† (Cutout, 2002, p. 96). Although the transactional leadership approach can be found primarily throughout business organizations, it also can be found in education at the principal position along with the transformational approach.In the field of education, a principal can implement both transformational and transactional leadership approaches simultaneously. In the sass, principals became agents of change. Healthier stated, â€Å"that this focus on the principals capacity to enact change was only affirmed in the sass with the popularity of Ron Edmondson effective schools research, which emphasized that strong administrative leadership as a common characteristic of successful schools† (Healthier, 1992, p. 37). As a result of No Child Left Behind (NCSC), schools have implemented high stakes testing to satisfy the requirements of the law.Principals are put in the position of having to wear â€Å"t wo hats†, a transformational hat and a transactional hat. Pepper states, † A principals ability to skillfully balance transform and transactional leadership styles will best position a school to accomplish the goals set forth by NCSC while also continuing to focus on individual students needs for academic success† (Pepper, 2010, p. 3). A principal practices a transformational leadership style when he or she is practicing shared leadership with staff, parents, and students.A principal would collaborate with teachers in the areas of curriculum development and instructional practices. The principal also would have a shared vision for the school and collaborate with staff and students to build an effective school culture. The principal would practice transactional leadership when he or she are overseeing the daily operations of the school. The principal would be enforcing policies, procedures, and rules of the school. The principal would reward teachers for accomplishi ng their goals and discipline teachers who do not live up to his or her standards.Although most would think of a principal as a transformational leader, there are times when a principal also has to be a transactional leader to accomplish goals, increase student achievement, and have a safe and effective school for both staff and students. Research and psychological studies will continue to contribute to the pool of leadership theories illustrated in this essay. The study of leadership has evolved from a leader-centered models with the advent of trait and behavioral studies to a Ochs on a multidimensional study that revolves around culture, context, and emotions as seen with the transactional and transformational models.